Refer to the 12-4 COPTER RNAV (GPS) Rwy 31 at W99/PGC (Petersburg WV) when necessary to answer the following questions:
1. The airport’s IATA identifier is PGC.
a True b False
2. Select the true statement(s) about minimum altitudes and terrain/obstacle depiction.
a TAA altitudes provide at least 1000 ft of obstacle clearance.
b The highest charted terrain or obstacle is 3000 ft above the airport elevation.
c ATC may vector an aircraft at an altitude that is lower than the minimum altitudes on the chart.
d The elevation of the highest terrain or obstacle that exists in the vicinity of the approach procedure is 3000 ft MSL.
e Terrain high points and man-made obstacles are not shown on the chart unless they are at least 600 ft above the airport elevation.
3. Select all that apply. The approach is not authorized ______
a at night.
b for circling to land on Rwy 13.
c using DME/DME RNP 0.30 equipment.
d if the local altimeter setting is not received.
4. When the temperature is at or below -9° C, the approach is not authorized if the aircraft does not have temperature compensating equipment.
a True b False
5. Select the true statement regarding the required equipment to fly the approach.
a WAAS is required to fly to LPV minimums.
b RAIM must be available to fly to LPV minimums.
c Baro-VNAV may be used to fly to LPV minimums.
d RAIM must be available to fly to LNAV minimums.
6. Which is a correct procedure for flying the initial approach segment when cleared for the approach on a course of 270° to FIBEL?
a Maintain 6700 ft MSL. At FIBEL, intercept the 310° course inbound and descend to 6000 ft MSL.
b Maintain 6700 ft MSL within 30 nm. Descend to 6000 ft MSL within 10 nm. At FIBEL, perform the course reversal to intercept the 310° course inbound.
c Maintain 7100 ft MSL within 30 nm. Descend to 6000 ft MSL within 10 nm. At FIBEL, perform the course reversal to intercept the 310° course inbound.
d Maintain 6700 ft MSL within 30 nm. Descend to 6000 ft MSL within 10 nm. At FIBEL, intercept the 310° course inbound and begin a descent to 4500 ft MSL.
7. Which maximum airspeed limitations apply?
a Performing the course reversal: 70 kts.
b Flying a course of 310° from FIBEL to CAPIV: 90 kts.
c Flying the final approach segment from CAPIV: 70 kts.
d Flying direct to FIBEL from the east within 30 nm: 90 kts.
e Flying direct to MIPKE at 5000 ft MSL on the missed approach segment: 70 kts.
f Climbing to 5000 ft MSL after initiating the missed approach: 70 kts.
8. Select the true statement(s) regarding flying the final approach segment.
a The PAPI provides a glidepath angle of 5.20°.
b The PAPI provides a glidepath angle of 6.50°.
c In a no-wind condition, an approximate descent rate of 645 ft/min will maintain the glidepath angle.
d In a no-wind condition, an approximate descent rate of 829 ft/min will maintain the glidepath angle.
9. A visual descent at an angle of 5.20° from the DA ensures obstacle clearance in the approach path to the runway.
a True b False
10. Select the true statement(s) regarding the missed approach procedure.
a A climb gradient of 400 ft/nm is required.
b A teardrop entry to the holding pattern applies.
c A climb to 1380 ft MSL is required before turning direct to MIPKE.
d A maximum speed of 70 kts applies at 5000 ft MSL in the holding pattern at ESL VORTAC.
e The copter’s navigation equipment will anticipate the turn at ESL and display indications to begin the turn prior to reaching the VORTAC.
Answers to 7/20 questions
1. a The ICAO (International Civil Aviation Organization) identifier or FAA location identifier (LID) is listed first, followed by the IATA (International Air Transport Association) identifier. In this case the FAA LID is W99 and the IATA identifier is PGC.
2. a, c According to the AIM 5-4-5(d), TAA altitudes provide at least 1000 ft of obstacle clearance, and more in mountainous areas. The highest charted terrain is indicated by the Highest Arrows as 3000 ft MSL (2037 ft above the airport elevation of 963 ft MSL). Some, but not all, terrain high points and man-made structures are depicted (generally only high points 400 ft or more above the airport elevation).
Terrain high points and structure elevations cannot be relied on for obstruction avoidance because higher uncharted terrain or obstructions might be within the same vicinity. Because of differences in the areas for minimum vectoring altitudes(MVAs) and those applied to other minimum altitudes, and the ability to isolate specific obstacles, some MVAs may be lower than the depicted non-radar minimum altitudes.
3. b, c, d No restrictions are listed for night operations. Circle-to-land minimums are not published, so a circling approach is not authorized. Procedural note 1 indicates that the local altimeter setting must be used, and, if not received, then the procedure is not authorized. Note 2 states that the use of DME/DME RNP-0.30 equipment is not authorized.
4. b Procedural note 7 in the Briefing Strip states, “Cold temperature altitude correction required at or below -9° C (16° F).” The FAA NOTAM Cold Temperature Restricted Airports indicates that pilots operating aircraft without temperature compensating equipment must apply a manual cold temperature altitude correction to the designated segment(s) of the approach using the AIM 7-2-3, ICAO Cold Temperature Error Table. Jeppesen provides a Cold Temperature Correction Table on a separate airport chart.
5. a, d To fly to LPV minimums, the aircraft must have WAAS-certified GPS equipment, which does not require RAIM. Baro-VNAV equipment may not be used. To use non-WAAS GPS equipment to fly to LNAV minimums, the equipment must be approved for IFR approaches according to Technical Standard Order (TSO) C129, and RAIM must be available.
According to the AIM 1-1-17, if RAIM is not available prior to beginning an RNAV (GPS) approach, another type of navigation and approach system must be used, another route or destination selected, or the trip must be delayed until RAIM is predicted to be available.
6. d According to the TAA icon in the lower right section of the plan view, a flight proceeding to FIBEL on a bearing between 220° clockwise to 040° may descend to a minimum altitude of 6700 ft MSL within 30 nm, and 6000 ft MSL within 10 nm. The notation “NoPT” next to ballflag 1 indicates that a course reversal is not authorized upon reaching FIBEL – the aircraft should turn to intercept the final approach course of 310°.
7. b, c, d, f According to procedural note 4 in the Briefing Strip, a 90-kt limitation applies when flying within the TAA (for example, flying direct to FIBEL within 30 nm) and when flying the intermediate approach segment (during the course reversal or on a course of 310° from FIBEL to CAPIV).
Note 5 limits the final and missed approach segments to 70 kts (flying the final approach course from CAPIV and initiating the missed approach procedure). However, according to note 6, airspeed may be increased to 90 kts after reaching 5000 ft MSL during the missed approach.
8. b, c Procedural note 3 in the Briefing Strip indicates that the VGSI (a PAPI as shown in the lighting box) and the RNAV glidepath are not coincident. According to FAA Order 8260.19E, coincidental glidepath angles/vertical descent angles are within 0.2 degrees with TCH values within 3 ft.
In this case, the PAPI has a glidepath angle of 6.50° (indicated in note 3) and the RNAV glidepath angle is 5.20° (shown on the descent/timing conversion table). Final approach speed is limited to 70 kts as per procedural note 5. In a no-wind condition, the aircraft’s ground speed is 70 kts, which requires an approximate descent rate of 645 ft/min as indicated in the descent/timing conversion table.
9. b The note “34:1 is not clear” in the profile view section indicates that the 34:1 OCS (obstacle clearance surface) is not free of obstructions. The 34:1 slope is a visual descent angle (VDA), which is shown as the dotted line from the DA to the runway threshold that follows the glidepath angle of 5.20° (indicated in the descent/timing conversion table). The absence of this note indicates that a normal visual descent at a 5.20° angle from the DA can be made clear of obstacles.
10. a, b, c, d According to the AIM 5-4-21, a minimum climb gradient of at least 400 ft/nm is required for copter approaches, unless a higher gradient is published. Procedural note 5 in the Briefing Strip indicates that the missed approach airspeed is limited to 70 kts.
However, note 6 indicates that airspeed may be increased to 90 kts upon reaching the missed approach altitude (5000 ft MSL). The missed approach instructions in the Briefing Strip and missed approach icons indicate a climb to 1380 ft MSL prior to turning direct to MIPKE. On a course of 057° to ESL, a teardrop entry applies. KESSEL VORTAC is a fly-over waypoint, so navigation indications will not provide guidance for a turn until the aircraft passes over the waypoint.